Having sexual intercourse with another of the same gender is said to be a sin in the Old Testament and is mentioned in a few more opinionated letters in the New Testament. It's not too clear if it is still sinful, because the laws of Leviticus were pretty much thrown out b/c of Christ dying. Because of this, it's really left to interpretation unfortunately, and so fundamentalists tend to consider it still sinful. There is no single gay gene. It is a combination of many different factors, like being the youngest of many brothers. Again, what is that supposed to prove and what point from my post was yours addressing?