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6/3/2015 3:01:06 PM
18
If man is imperfect then how is his interpretation of the bible valid?
English
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Because the Holy Spirit interprets it for us which we receive upon putting aside the old flesh and becoming alive in Christ :) (1 Thessalonians 4:8 , Romans 8:26-27, John 16:13, 1Corinthians 2:10-14)
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The original scriptures weren't flawed because they were directly influenced by God. Newer translations get less and less accurate, but still true to the overall message. I use the KJV because it's the most true to the original text in English.
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We'd need to establish a god to make your point valid. But non the less for the sake of argument let's say the bible is "divine" man's interpretation is still imperfect. Man will, sometimes unknowingly, twist the bible to there personal needs/wants. This is why facts are important. Because it sets boundaries that aren't subject to opinion and they're are less susceptible to the imperfections of man want/needs.
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Edited by Chaddercheese16: 8/7/2015 10:32:31 PMI couldn't agree more. The vast majority of the Christian population today don't keep the Sabbath, don't keep the dietary laws, and don't keep God's feast days. It's quite depressing to me, really. However, most of that isn't lost in translation (although some is); most people already twist the scriptures to what they want.
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ur in th kgb?
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Edited by UnwanteDreamz: 8/7/2015 8:00:53 AMThey can't answer this one logically. It weakens their book, it's premise, and their faith to be honest with themselves about it. If I was "evil" like "satan" why not tamper with the book?
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Edited by ArkangelS187: 8/7/2015 6:36:25 AMI'm sure it changed as it passed through so many generations, but the words are revelation prophets received from God, and God instructed them to write it for the benefit of these modern generations. Also, you interpret it how you want to. The personal revelation you receive while reading comes from God.
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In that case why are people's personal revelations often completely different, and how could you possibly discern which, if any, is accurate?
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Maybe that's why there's hundreds of interpretations???
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I can answer this one, because the words in the bible where given to the men by God, so everything in the bible is indirectly from God.
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But different bible's have different words so how is this possible only one can be correct not all
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The words were given to them by God? This wasn't a dictated book, different people over hundreds of years wrote it
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Yeah people over thousands of years wrote it. And it all adds up and makes sense. Like he said it was indirectly written by God because God gave them the words to say.
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Well, there's absolutely no evidence to that at all
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Ok. So the folks god didn't talk to how is there interpretation valid?
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But couldn't man's imperfections hinder their recollections of speaking with God therefore cause misrepresentation of what God may have actually said?
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I think that God willed them to be able to remember everything just as He told them.
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Ok. So the folks god didn't talk to how is there interpretation valid?
